A 24-year-old man was referred for postrefractive surgery evaluation. The patient had a history of uneventful laser in situ keratomileusis (LASIK) in both eyes 3 months previously. According to the surgeon who originally performed the surgery, on slitlamp examination, only microstriae in the left eye was detected on postoperative day 1 and a more conservative follow-up approach was adopted without further immediate intervention. The patient returned only 3 months after surgery, complaining of low vision in the left eye that, according to the patient, had been present since postoperative week 2. The patient was then referred for examination and surgical procedure with a diagnosis of significant postoperative striae. The slitlamp examination revealed a LASIK flap with striae, epithelial filling, and a wrinkled appearance (Figure 1JOURNAL/jcrs/04.03/02158034-202312000-00017/figure1/v/2023-11-20T151558Z/r/image-tiff). There were no signs of infection or inflammation. Originally, the LASIK flap was programmed to be 110 μm. Preoperative manifest refraction in the right eye was -5.25 (20/20) and in the left eye was -5.25 (20/20). Assuming it is a case of late-approach LASIK flap striae, how would you proceed? Would you try to hydrate and lift the flap and just reposition it? Would you avoid lifting and associate phototherapeutic keratectomy (PTK) with excimer laser on top of the flap? Would you consider topo-guided surgery with regularization of the visual axis or even amputation of the flap?
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